Posted on August 7, 2009 - by Patrick

How do you interperate this scripture? Atonement for all?

So I have been studying 1, 2, 3 John – I came across this statement 1 John 2 that I have been chewing on the past few days.

You guys are smart, most likely smarter than I. How do you interperate the following passage? You all come from vastly streams of Christianity, it will be fascinating to hear your take.

“My dear children, I write this to you so that you will not sin. But if anybody does sin, we have one who speaks to the Father in our defense—Jesus Christ, the Righteous One. 2He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for[a] the sins of the whole world.” 2 John 1-2

I understand that John is speaking mainly to the church in Ephesus and to the global church at large — that meaning, communities of believers who are united by the Gospel of Jesus.

What troubles me is the issue of atonement of all people [a] and how that fits in with the churches view on the salvation process. (I.e. We must Accept, Believe and Confess that Jesus is Lord)

Here are a few questions:

1. If it is true that the sins of the world (including those outside of the church) have been atoned for how does this affect our message? (i.e. conversion of non-believers)

2. Is everyone in Gehenna (Hell) forgiven, atoned of their sins? If that is true, wouldn’t they be in right standing with God through Jesus?

3. If that is true, why are they in Hell in the first place. The blood of Jesus wiped sin out there by restoring humanity into a right relationship with the Father.

4. How does belief, grace and forgiveness of the sins of all humanity connect in a central gospel of the Christianity?

Have fun.

*note – the preceding questions should not call into question my personal beliefs, they are merely questions and ponderings. Let’s not start rumors.